Modul 2 Symptoms and syndromes in diseases of internal organs Text test



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Iopagnost

  • Urotrast

  • Which symptom is characteristic for hepatitis?

    1. Chvostek’s sign

    2. * Murphy’s sign

    3. Obraztsov’s sign

    4. Mayo-Robson‘s sign

    5. Troisier's sign

  • Yellow colour of skin and mucosa are caused by:

    1. Increased level of serum hemoglobin

    2. *Increased level of serum bilirubin

    3. Increased level of serum cholesterol

    4. Increased level of serum creatinin

    5. Increased level of serum urea

  • Skin itching in jaundice is caused by:

    1. Increased concentration of hemoglobin

    2. Increased concentration of bilirubin

    3. Increased concentration of cholesterol

    4. Increased concentration of creatinine

    5. * Increased concentration of bile acids

  • What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples?

    1. Bacteria

    2. Mucus

    3. * Bilirubinate calcium salts and precipitates

    4. All of the above

    5. Everything is wrong

  • What color of feces in mechanical jaundice?

    1. Bright-yellow

    2. Dark-brown

    3. Clays color

    4. * Grey

    5. Black

  • What are the signs of bile lithogenicity on microscopic examination of bile samples?

    1. Bacteria

    2. Mucus

    3. * Bilirubinate calcium salts and precipitates

    4. All of the above

    5. Everything is wrong

  • What color of feces in mechanical jaundice?

    1. Bright-yellow

    2. Dark-brown

    3. Clays color

    4. * Grey

    5. Black

  • A fever at pernicious anemia is caused by:

    1. Massive disintegration of leukocytes;

    2. *Disintegration of red cells;

    3. Infectious complications;

    4. General intoxication;

    5. Hyperglobulinemia.

  • A hemorrhagic syndrome arises up as a result of all of reasons, except of:

    1. Decreasing of thrombocytes amount

    2. Functional deficiency of thrombocytes

    3. Deficit of coagulation factors in plasma

    4. Damage of vascular wall of immune character

    5. * Decreasing of erythrocytes amount and level of hemoglobin

  • During auscultation of a heart in patients with anemia it is heard:

    1. Rhythm of quail

    2. Bradycardia

    3. Intensification of I heart sound on apex

    4. Aggravation of II heart sound above aorta

    5. *Systolic murmur at apex

  • Excretion of which metabolites leads to hypercreatininemia?

    1. * Proteins metabolites

    2. Carbohydrates metabolites

    3. Fats metabolites

    4. All mentioned

    5. Uric acid salts

  • For which disease alveolar pyorrhea is typical:

    1. Pernicious anemia;

    2. *Iron-deficiency;

    3. Hemolytic anemia;

    4. Acute leukosis;

    5. Erythremia.

  • Hemorrhages in the form of small dots are named:

    1. *petechia

    2. purpura

    3. ecchympses

    4. roseola

    5. papula

  • How is pain called caused by kidney block with a stone?

    1. * Urocolick

    2. Biliary colick

    3. Intestinal colick

    4. Spasmodic pain

    5. Dull boring pain

  • In a patient with disease of kidney pericardial friction sound is heard. Which condition is it typical for?

    1. Myocarditis

    2. Rheumatic attack

    3. * chronic renal failure

    4. Ischemic hereart disease

    5. hypertension

  • In development of chronic pyelonephritis the most important provoking factor is:

    1. Inflammation

    2. * Overcooling

    3. Immune disorders

    4. Disorders of hemostasis

    5. Liver disease

  • In patient’s urianalyses there were found leukocyturia, bacteriuria and proteinuria. Which disease is this typical for?

    1. Paranephritis

    2. Acute glomerulonephritis

    3. * pyelonephritis

    4. Amyloidosis

    5. Kidney cancer

  • In which disease nicturia may be present?

    1. Acute nephritis

    2. Diabetes mellitus

    3. * Chronic renal failure

    4. Chronic liver failure

    5. Diencephalic syndrome

  • Select the method of assessment of urine outflow disorders in pyelonephritis of pregnant women:

    1. Excretory urography

    2. Chromocystoscopy

    3. Ultrasound

    4. * Ultrasound, chromocystoscopy

    5. Radioisotopic renography

  • Select the most informative method of diagnostics of acute secondary pyelonephritis:

    1. Chromocystoscopy

    2. Radioisotopic renography

    3. Ultrasound

    4. Laboratory tests

    5. * X- ray and ultrasound

  • Patient O., 39 years old, complains of nicturia. What pathology is this symptom typical for?

    1. acute nephritis;

    2. diabetes mellitus;

    3. * chronic kidney insufficiency;

    4. chronic cardiac insufficiency;

    5. diencephalic syndrome.

  • Signs of deficit of iron:

    1. Psilosis

    2. Fragility of nails

    3. Distortion of taste

    4. Koylonychia

    5. * All above mentioned

  • The most typical symptoms in acute pyelonephritis:

    1. Proteinuria

    2. Bacteriuria

    3. Erythrocituria

    4. * Leukocyturia, bacteriuria

    5. Sternmaiber-Malbin’s cells

  • The patient’s face with Adison-Birmer anemia looks like:

    1. Pale, diffusely edematic;

    2. *«waxen doll»;

    3. Cyanotic, edematic;

    4. Pale, exhausted;

    5. Moonlike.

  • In which kidney disease may be convulsions?

    1. Urocolick attack

    2. * Renal eclampsia

    3. Kidney tuberculosis

    4. Tumor of a kidney

    5. Glomerulonephritis

  • In which parts of digestive system the main part of iron is absorbed?

    1. In a stomach

    2. *In a duodenum and initial part of thin colon

    3. In a sigmoid colon

    4. In a caecum

    5. Along the whole length of digestive tract

  • Main laboratory sign of pyelonephritis:

    1. Large amount of casts

    2. Lipiduria

    3. * Prevalence of leukocyturia against of erythrocyturia

    4. Prevalence of erythrocyturia against of leukocyturia

    5. Proteinuria more than 2 g per day

  • Pathogenesis of arterial hypertension in kidney diseases is the following:

    1. * increased production of renin

    2. transformation of angiotensinogen in angiotensin II

    3. decreased production of prostaglandin

    4. replacement of natrium ions inside cells

    5. increased production of renin

  • Patient M. experiensed pyelonephritis. What laboratory sign is the most characteristic for this pathology?

    1. * active leukocytes in urine;

    2. considerable proteinuria;

    3. uraturia;

    4. oxalaturia;

    5. glucosuria.

  • Patient A., 38 years old, developed acute nephritis. What color of urine may be observed?

    1. red;

    2. * color of «meat wastes»;

    3. color of beer;

    4. sulphur

    5. straw-yellow.

  • Primary urine appears for a healthy man:

    1. * in glomerulis;

    2. in the proximal department of tubulis;

    3. in a diatal department;

    4. in the loop of Genle;

    5. in glomerulis and proximal department of tubulis.

  • Provoking factors of pyelonephritis:

    1. * severe bacterial infections

    2. Focuses of infection in the organism

    3. Immune deficiency state

    4. Acute cystitis

    5. All mentioned

  • Reberg’s test is performed with the purpose:

    1. to reveal which part of urinary system is the source of hematuria or leukocyturia,

    2. * estimation of kidney concentration function

    3. for calculation of formed elements (red cells, leukocytes, casts) in urine with the method of Kakovsky-Addis

    4. for determination of diuresis

    5. for determination of the amount of albumen in urine.

  • The plane X-ray of kidney allows to define:

    1. condition of the pyelocaliceal system;

    2. position of ureters;

    3. * sizes of kidneys;

    4. condition of glomerular apparatus of kidneys;

    5. presence of a tumor.

  • Tongue in patient with Adison-Birmer anemia looks like:

    1. *Geographical;

    2. Raspberry color;

    3. Coated with white fur;

    4. Edemtic;

    5. Clean.

  • Typical peculiarities of renal edema:

    1. Appear in the evening

    2. First appear on legs

    3. First appear on arms

    4. * Appearance on face in the morning

    5. Early appearance of anasarca

  • Urinary syndrome was found out in a patient. What amount of albumen in urine is it typical for urinary syndrome?

    1. * till 3,5 g/day;

    2. till 4,5 g/day;

    3. till 5,5 g/day;

    4. till 6,5 g/day;

    5. till 9,5 g/day.

  • What amount of urine is excreted by kidneys of a healthy individual?

    1. * 1-2 l/day;

    2. 2,5 l/day;

    3. 3,5 l/day;

    4. 5,0 l/day;

    5. 7,0 l/day;

  • What are casts?

    1. Mucus, which changed its consistency in acid urine

    2. * Protein molds from renal canaliculi

    3. Accumulation of bacteria

    4. Thrombocytes pressed together

    5. Salt corks

  • What can not be assessed on plane X-ray of kidneys?

    1. Form of kidneys

    2. Size of kidneys

    3. Location of kidneys

    4. Presence of concrements

    5. * Presence of crystals of salts

  • What can not be the reason of edema in kidney diseases?

    1. * Increased level of albumin in blood

    2. Increase of permeability of capillary wall

    3. Diminishing of oncotic pressure of blood plasma

    4. Accumulation of sodium ions in blood and tissues

    5. Acute delay of selection of urine by lidneys

  • What day's requirement of the grown man in iron is needed for the erythrocytes synthesis?

    1. 20-25 mg

    2. 30-35 mg

    3. *10-18 mg

    4. 5-10 mg

    5. 1-2 g

  • What does belong to contrast X-ray examination of kidneys?

    1. * Excretory urography

    2. Radionuclide renogram

    3. Scintigraphy

    4. Radiocistography

    5. All mentioned above

  • What does not belong to radionuclide diagnostics of kidney diseases?

    1. * Excretory urography

    2. Radionuclide renogram

    3. Scintigraphy

    4. Radiocystography

    5. All mentioned above

  • What edema are characteristic for kidney patients?

    1. edema on lower limbs.

    2. edema on the lumbar region

    3. * edema below eyes

    4. accumulation of liquid in abdominal cavity (hydroperitoneum)

    5. edema on upper extremities.

  • What is ishuria:

    1. absence of urination because of affection of kidney excretory function

    2. * absence of urination because of impossibility to discharge urine from the bladder

    3. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day

    4. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day

    5. amount of urine excreted per day is 0-30 ml per day because of affection of kidney excretory function

  • What is «pica chlorotica»?

    1. Inacidity and achilia for patients with iron-deficiency anaemia

    2. * Patients with iron-deficiency anaemia have inverted taste

    3. No correct answer

    4. Burning sensations on a tongue

    5. Pallor with a greenish tint in patients with chronic iron-deficiency anaemia

  • What is anuria:

    1. absence of urination because of affection of kidney excretory function

    2. absence of urination because of impossibility to discharge urine from the bladder

    3. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day

    4. decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day

    5. * amount of urine excreted per day is 0-30 ml per day because of affection of kidney excretory function

  • What may be found out during the inspection of oral cavity in a patient with acute leukosis?

    1. * Ulcerative and necrotic tonsillitis

    2. Gingival bleeding

    3. Multiple chronic focuses of infection

    4. Ulcerative and necrotic stomatitis

    5. *All mentioned

  • What is koilonychia?

    1. Transversal lines of nails

    2. Nails as watch glasses

    3. * Spoon-shaped (concave) form of nails

    4. Fragility of nails

    5. Discoloration of nails

  • What is location of edema in initial stages of kidney affection?

    1. * Below eyes

    2. On lower limbs

    3. On upper limbs

    4. In lumbar region

    5. In abdominal cavity

  • What is not typical for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?

    1. Dryness and shelling of skin

    2. Hair fragility

    3. Concavity of nail plates

    4. * Slight yellow color of skin and mucous membranes

    5. Parodontosis, darkening of teeth

  • What is oliguria:

    1. frequent urination

    2. increase of amount of urine more than 2 litres per day

    3. * decrease of amount of urine less than 1 litre per day

    4. increase of specific gravity of urine

    5. lowering of specific gravity of urine

  • Select the proper volume of urine in oliguria:

    1. excretion less than 20 ml of urine per day

    2. absence of urine

    3. * excretion of 300-500 ml of urine per day

    4. excretion to 1000-1500 ml per day

    5. excretion of more than 2000 ml per day.

  • What is Pasternatsky’s symptom?

    1. Pain in palpation of lumbar region in the area of projection of kidneys

    2. Appearance of pain in lumbar region in rotation of a trunk

    3. * Appearance of pain at tapping of lumbar region in the area of kidneys

    4. Appearance of pain in the lumbar area at coughing

    5. Appearance of pain in the projection of ureter at passing of stone from a kidney

  • What is pathogenesis of kidney eclampsia?

    1. * Brain edema

    2. Affection of peripheral nerves

    3. Brain stroke

    4. Increased nerve irritation

    5. All mentioned

  • What is pathological mechanism of urocolick?

    1. * Obstruction of urine outflow from the kidney

    2. Inflammaltion of kidney parenchyma

    3. Inflammaltion of kidney calicies

    4. Inflammaltion of paranephral tissues

    5. No correct answer

  • What is the cause of ostealgia in patients with chronic leukosis?

    1. Secondary infection

    2. * Hyperplasia of myeloid tissue

    3. Intoxication syndrome

    4. Increased production of lymphocites in bone marrow

    5. Systemis enlargement of lymphatic nodes

  • What is the origin of destroyed erythrocites in urianalyses?

    1. * Acute glomerulonephritis

    2. Urolithiasis

    3. Paranephritis

    4. Acute cystitis

    5. pyelonephritis

  • What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in I portion of urine in Thompson’s test?

    1. * Urethra

    2. Kidney

    3. A bladder

    4. Urethers

    5. rectum

  • What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in II portion of urine in Thompson’s test?

    1. Urethra

    2. * Kidney

    3. A bladder

    4. Urethers

    5. rectum

  • What is the sourse of leukocyturia if leukocites are mainly present in III portion of urine in Thompson’s test?

    1. Urethra

    2. Kidney

    3. * A bladder

    4. Urethers

    5. rectum

  • What is typical for nephritic syndrome?

    1. Gross proteinuria

    2. Hypoproteinemia

    3. Hyperlipidemia

    4. No correct answer

    5. * All enumerated

  • Which level of albumin in urine is characteristic for nephrotic syndrome?

    1. * more than 3,5 gr. per day

    2. 4,1 gr. per day

    3. 5,0 gr. per day

    4. 2,0 gr. per day

    5. 0,33 gr. per day

  • What may be revealed in urinalyses of patient with acute pyelonephritis within first 48 hours of the disease?

    1. * Bacteriuria, proteinuria

    2. No changes

    3. Pyuria, erythrocyturia

    4. Casts

    5. Hematuria, proteinuria

  • What may be the consequence of gross prolonged loss of protein with urine?

    1. Development of uric syndrome

    2. Development of nephritic syndrome

    3. Development of hematuric syndrome

    4. * Development of nephrotic syndrome

    5. Development of hypertensive syndrome

  • What mechanisms of formation of urine does take place at the level of kidney tubuli?

    1. filtration;

    2. filtration and reabsorption;

    3. * reabsorption and secretion;

    4. filtration and secretion;

    5. reabsorption.

  • What pains are characteristic for nephrocolic:

    1. dull, aching pain in lumbar region

    2. intensive permanent pain in lumbar region

    3. * intensive sharp attack-like pain in lumbar region on one side irradiating downward to the internal surface of the thighs and perineum.

    4. intensive sharp attack-like pain in lumbar region from the right side irradiating upward to the right shoulder and scapula.

    5. pain at the bottom of a stomach

  • What pathology of kidney is cramping paintypical for?

    1. *In the attack of nephrocolic

    2. In kidney eclampsia

    3. Tuberculosis of kidneys

    4. Tumour of kidneys

    5. Glomerulonephritis

  • What pathology of urinary system is manifested with sudden sharp pain in lumbar region from one side?

    1. Paranephritis

    2. Nephroptosis

    3. Acute pyelonephritis

    4. Acute glomerulonephritis

    5. * Renal colick.

  • What position does patient with urocolick assume?

    1. On affected side with legs bended in hip and knee joints and by the leg pressed to the stomach from the side of affection

    2. Semirecumbent position with lowered legs (orthopnoe)

    3. Lying on a sick side

    4. * Restless

    5. Sitting, bending forward.

  • What results of Zimnitsky’s test do testify about violation of concentration function of kidneys?

    1. prevalence of night diuresis above daily one

    2. Increased specific gravity of urine in separate portions.

    3. relative gravity is below 1010 at lest in one portion of urine

    4. *monotonous low specific gravity of urine is in all of portions.

    5. an increase of amount of albumen is in urine.

  • What sign may be found during inspection of a patient with chronic lympholeukosis?

    1. Systemic increase of peripheral lymphatic nodes, they are painless and not connected with skin

    2. Enlargement of a spleen

    3. Mild enlargement of a liver

    4. Appearance of violet-blue nodes on the skin ( leukaemides).

    5. * All above mentioned

  • What syndrome are the following signs typical for: edema, marked proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, dysproteinemia, hypercholesterolemia?

    1. Uric syndrome

    2. Nephritic one

    3. * Nephrotic syndrome

    4. Hypertensive syndrome

    5. Renal eclampsia.

  • What type of a disease is acute glomerulonephritis?

    1. * Immunoallergic

    2. Allergic

    3. Authoimmune

    4. Infectious

    5. Dysthrophic

  • What type of a disease is acute pyelonephritis?

    1. Immunoallergic

    2. Allergic

    3. Authoimmune

    4. * Infectious

    5. Dysthrophic

  • When does deformation of calicies and thin renal parenchyma of kidneys appear on excretory urogram?

    1. * In chronic diffuse nephritis

    2. In the case of polycystosis

    3. Norm.

    4. In uncomplicated urolithiasis

    5. In hydronephrosis.

  • When does the displacement of one kidney appear on plane X-ray?

    1. In diffuse nephritis

    2. In the case of polycystosis

    3. In chronic kidney insufficiency of the II stage.

    4. * In nephroptosis

    5. In hydronephrosis.

  • When does the enlargement of one kidney appear on plane X-ray?

    1. In diffuse nephritis

    2. In the case of polycystosis

    3. In chronic kidney insufficiency of the II stage.

    4. In uncomplicated urolithiasis

    5. * In hydronephrosis.

  • When does the enlargement of both kidneys appear on plane X-ray?

    1. In nephritis

    2. In the case of hypertrophy

    3. In the case of diabetic nephropathia

    4. * In the case of polycystosis

    5. In chronic kidney insufficiency

  • Where do lymphocites develop?

    1. * In lymphatic nodes and in all lymphoid organs.

    2. In red bone marrow

    3. In a thymus

    4. In a spleen

    5. In kidneys

  • Where do red cells develop?

    1. In lymphatic nodes

    2. In a spleen

    3. In thymus

    4. * In red bone marrow

    5. In a liver

  • Which cells do not belong to the reticular stroma of bone marrow?

    1. Fibroblasts

    2. Erythroblasts

    3. Fatty cells

    4. Osteoblasts

    5. Endothelial cells

  • Which changes in biochemical blood study are possible if the patient suffers from chronic pyelonephritis for 10 years?

    1. Hypoproteinemia

    2. Hyperpliporoteinemia

    3. Hyperbilirubinemia

    4. * hypercreatininemia

    5. Dysproteinemia

  • Which changes in complete blood count are the most often presented in acute pyelonephritis?

    1. Decreased ESR

    2. Leukopoenia

    3. Decreased hemoglobin content

    4. Thrombocytopenia

    5. * Shift on the left

  • Which changes of kidney concentration function are typical for chronic pyelonephritis?

    1. * hypoisosthenuria

    2. isosthenuria

    3. hypersthenuria

    4. hyposthenuria

    5. oliguria

  • Which cnahges in urianalyses are typical for chronic glomerulonephritis?

    1. Active leukocytes

    2. Protein in urine less than 1 %

    3. Leukocytes cover all vision field

    4. * Erythrocytes till 30 in one vision field

    5. Bacteria till 100 in one vision field

  • Which data of urianalyses are typical for acute glomerulonephritis?

    1. * increased protein, erythrocytes and hyaline and wax casts

    2. increased protein, and hyaline casts

    3. leukocyturia, granular casts

    4. Crystals of uric acid salts in urine

    5. No correct answer

  • Which data of urianalyses are typical for acute pyelonephritis ?

    1. increased protein, erythrocytes and hyaline and wax casts

    2. * protein in low concentration, leukocyturia, bacteriuria

    3. leukocyturia, granular casts

    4. Crystals of uric acid salts in urine

    5. No correct answer

  • Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate the lower kidney pole, it is not displaceble?

    1. * I;

    2. II;

    3. III;

    4. IV;

    5. total nephroptosis.

  • Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate all the kidney in iliac region, it is easly displaceble, move to the opposite side of the body?

    1. I;

    2. II;

    3. * III;

    4. IV;

    5. total nephroptosis.

  • Which degree of nephroptosis is present if it is possible to palpate all the kidney, it is easly displaceble, but does not move to the opposite side of the body?

    1. I;

    2. * II;

    3. III;

    4. IV;

    5. total nephroptosis.

  • Which examination should you prescribe for a patient if you revealed erythrocytes, protein and casts in his urine?

    1. Renography

    2. Chest X-ray

    3. * Ultrasound examination of kidneys

    4. Renal scintigraphy

    5. Duodenal probing

  • Which from objective symptoms are typical for anemia?

    1. *Paleness of skin and mucous membranes

    2. Petechias

    3. Cyanosis

    4. Edema

    5. Rash

  • Which iron absorbs the best?

    1. Those which is the component of plants

    2. Those which is the component of albumens which contain haem (veal)

    3. Those which is the component of dietary sorts of meat (rabbit, chicken)

    4. Those which is received with groats

    5. Any iron is absorbed inspite of valency and amount

  • Which irradiation is typical for urocolick?

    1. * Downward to internal surface of thighs and perineum

    2. Upward to the right scapula

    3. Toward the neck

    4. Toward the navel

    5. No irradiation

  • Which laboratory test is useful for assessment of kidney concentration function?

    1. Complete blood count;

    2. ECG;

    3. Nechiporenko’s test;

    4. * Zimnitsky’s test

    5. determination of daily proteinuria.

  • Which laboratory test is useful for assessment of kidney filtration function?

    1. Complete blood count;

    2. Nechyporenko’s test;

    3. Canalicular reabsorption

    4. * Clearance by endogenous creatinine (glomerular filtration)

    5. determination of daily proteinuria.

  • Which laboratory test is useful for assessment kidney concentration function?

    1. Complete blood count;

    2. Nechyporenko’s test;

    3. * Canalicular reabsorption

    4. Clearance by endogenous creatinine (glomerular filtration)

    5. determination of daily proteinuria.

  • Which level of protein in urine is typical for acute glomerulonephritis?

    1. 0,03 g/l

    2. 0,03-1 g/l

    3. 1-2 g/l

    4. 2-3 g/l

    5. * More than 3 g/l

  • Which level of protein in urine is typical for acute pyelonephritis?

    1. No protein in urine

    2. * 0,03-1 g/l

    3. 1-2 g/l

    4. 2-3 g/l

    5. More than 3 g/l

  • Which main sign of chronic renal failure is the main criterion of its severity?

    1. Hypertension

    2. * Serum creatinin

    3. Degree of anemia

    4. Proteinuria

    5. Heart failure

  • Which organ does product erythropoietin?

    1. Lymphatic nodes and all lymphoid organs.

    2. Red bone marrow

    3. Thymus

    4. A spleen

    5. * Kidneys

  • Which organs do not belong to haemopoetic system (does not participte in productio of blood formed elements)?

    1. Bone marrow

    2. *Thymus

    3. Spleen

    4. Lymph nodes

    5. Liver

  • Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in chronic right-sided pyelonephritis?

    1. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically

    2. * Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on right side

    3. Stones in calicies

    4. Ellarged calicies

    5. Swelling of kidney parenchyma

  • Which results of ultrasound examination should be expected in acute glomerulonephritis?

    1. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on both sides symmetrically

    2. Thin kidney parenchyma because of sclerosis on one side

    3. Stones in calicies

    4. Enlarged calicies

    5. *Swelling of kidney parenchyma on both sides symmetrically

  • Which symptoms arise up in patients with acute leukosis?

    1. General weakness

    2. Pain in joints and muscles

    3. High body temperature

    4. Frequent pain during swallowing

    5. * All above

  • Which syndrome is marked loss of albumin with urine typical for?

    1. Urinary syndrome

    2. Nephritic syndrome

    3. Hematuria

    4. * Nephrotic syndrome

    5. Hypertension.

  • Which syndrome is not typical for pyelonephritis

    1. Uric

    2. * Nephrotic

    3. Pain

    4. Intoxication

    5. Dysuric

  • Which changes in complete blood count are the most often presented in acute pyelonephritis?

    1. Decreased ESR

    2. *Leukocytosis

    3. Decreased hemoglobin content

    4. Thrombocytopenia

    5. Shift on the right

  • Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

    1. * an evanescent salmon-pink macular rashes,;

    2. chronic pain and swelling of many joints in a symmetric fashion.

    3. chronic asymmetric arthritis of large joints,

    4. purpuric skin rashes,

    5. hemarthroses.

  • Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

    1. * hepatosplenomegaly;

    2. Involvement of large and small joints

    3. mild or painless synoviitis.

    4. colicky abdominal pain,

    5. massive bleeding after traumas.

  • Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

    1. * polyserositis,

    2. rheumatoid nodules,

    3. Uncommon systemic features.

    4. nephritis;

    5. massive bleeding after teeth extraction

  • Acute febrile form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

    1. * leukocytosis;

    2. chronic pain and swelling of many joints;

    3. asymptomatic iridocyclitis;

    4. purpuric skin rashes,

    5. massive bleeding after operations

  • In complete blood count of a patient with B12 deficiency anemia all the signs are determined except of:

    1. decreasing hemoglobin and erythrocytes amount

    2. macrocytosis

    3. increasing of CI more than 1,1

    4. * decreasing of CI less then 0.8

    5. Zholly’s bodies, Kebot’s rings in erythrocytes

  • For what disease color index is more than 1,05?

    1. Iron-deficiency anemia

    2. Posthemorrhagic anemia

    3. *B12 deficiency anemia

    4. Hemolytic anemia

    5. Acute leukosis

  • For what disease color index is more than 1,05?

    1. Iron-deficiency anemia

    2. Posthemorrhagic anemia

    3. * Folic acid deficiency anemia

    4. Hemolytic anemia

    5. Acute leukosis

  • How is it needed to take away blood for determination of thrombocytes?

    1. Inflict the drop of iodine into the place of puncture

    2. Inflict the drop of alcohol into the place of puncture

    3. Inflict a drop of manganese potassium into the place of puncture

    4. * Inflict the drop of 14 % magnesium sulfate solution into the place of puncture

    5. Inflict the drop of 25 % magnesium sulfate solution into the place of puncture

  • How many classes of haemopoetic cells there are?

    1. *6

    2. 4

    3. 7

    4. 5

    5. 3

  • How many levels of thrombotest are determined?

    1. * 7

    2. 6

    3. 4

    4. 8

    5. 5

  • How the I-st phase of blood coagulation activity is determined?

    1. * By determination of time of plasma recalcification and test of prothrombin consumption.

    2. By determination of prothrombin index

    3. By determination of fibrinogen concentration

    4. By a thrombotest level

    5. By determination of plasma tolerance to the heparin

  • Patient was prescribed determination of blood haematocrite. Specify, what level of haematocrite is normal for a male?

    1. 29-36

    2. 36-42

    3. *40-48

    4. 48-54

    5. more than 54

  • Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

    1. * symmetric involvement of large and small joints.

    2. macular rashes,

    3. systemic features;

    4. nephritis;

    5. massive bleeding after traumas.

  • Polyarticular form of the rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by:

    1. * rheumatoid nodules,

    2. hepatosplenomegaly,

    3. asymmetric arthritis of large joints,

    4. migratory polyarthritis;

    5. massive bleeding after teeth extraction.

  • Signs of deficit of iron:

    1. Psilosis

    2. Fragility of nails

    3. Distortion of taste

    4. Koilonychia

    5. *All above mentioned

  • Specify which indexes of leukocytes in blood are normal?

    1. 2,0-5,0 · 109/l

    2. *4,0-9,0 · 109/l

    3. 9,0-11,0 · 109/l

    4. 11,0-13,0 · 109/l

    5. 13,0-14,0 · 109/l

  • Tongue in patient with long-term Adison-Birmer anemia looks like:

    1. *Smooth;

    2. Raspberry;

    3. Coated with white fur;

    4. Edemtic;

    5. Clean.

  • What is anisocytosis:

    1. erythrocytes of different size

    2. appearance of red corpuscles of different form

    3. appearance of leukocytes of different form

    4. appearance of leukocytes of different size

    5. appearance of thrombocytes of different size

  • What is coagulation time by Lee-White?

    1. *5-10 min

    2. 3-5 min

    3. 6-12 min

    4. 1-3 min

    5. 12-13 min

  • What is displacement of leukocyte formula to the left?

    1. Appearance in blood of increased amount of lymphocytes

    2. Appearance in blood of increased amount of leukocytes

    3. Appearance in blood of increased amount of monocytes

    4. Appearance in blood of increased amount of erythrocytes

    5. *Appearance in blood of increased amount of stab neutrophil and juvenile neutrophils

  • What is displacement of leukocyte formula to the right?

    1. Appearance in blood of increased amount of lymphocytes

    2. Appearance in blood of increased amount of leukocytes

    3. Appearance in blood of increased amount of monocytes

    4. Appearance in blood of increased amount of erythrocytes

    5. * Decreased amount of immatured neutrophils in perypheric blood

  • What is not typical for a patient with iron-deficiency anemia?

    1. Dryness and shelling of skin

    2. Hair fragility

    3. Concavity of nail plates

    4. Subicteritiousness of skin and mucous membrane

    5. Parodontosis, darkening of teeth

  • What is poikilocytosis:

    1. * appearance of red corpuscles of different size

    2. appearance of red corpuscles of different form

    3. appearance of leukocytes of different form

    4. appearance of leukocytes of different size

    5. appearance of thrombocytes of different form

  • What is polyuria:

    1. frequent urination

    2. *the increase of amount of urine more than 2 l/day

    3. the increase of amount of urine more than 1 l/day

    4. increase of specific gravity of urine

    5. lowering of specific gravity of urine.

  • What type of fever may be found out in a patient with acute leukosis?

    1. Intermittant or remittant fever

    2. *Hectic fever

    3. Irregular fever

    4. Permanent fever

    5. Undulating fever

  • Which sign does confirm the diagnosis of thrombocytopenic purpura?

    1. *Diminishing in peripheral blood amount of thrombocytes

    2. Negative symptom of pinching and tapping

    3. Prolonged bleeding time by Lee-White

    4. Incresedd concentraion of fibrinogen in blood serum

    5. All mentioned

  • Where do lymphocites become matured?

    1. In lymphatic nodes.

    2. In red marrow

    3. *In thymus

    4. In a spleen

    5. In buds

  • Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation?

    1. time of plasma recalcification

    2. *prothrombin index

    3. fibrinogen concentration

    4. thrombotest level

    5. Beeding tine by Lee-White

  • Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation?

    1. determination of time of plasma recalcification

    2. * determination of prothrombin index

    3. determination of fibrinogen concentration

    4. a thrombotest level

    5. determination of plasma tolerance to the heparin

  • Which levels of thrombotest correspond to hypocoagulation?

    1. III-IV

    2. *-III

    3. IV-V

    4. VI-VII

    5. II-I

  • Patient was prescribed determination of blood haematocrite. Specify, what level of haematocrite is normal for a female?

    1. 29-36

    2. *-36-42

    3. 40-48

    4. 48-54

    5. more than 54

  • Which indexes characterizes the II phase of blood coagulation?

    1. time of plasma recalcification

    2. Beeding tine by Lee-White

    3. fibrinogen concentration

    4. thrombotest level

    5. *plasma tolerance to the heparin

  • Data of percussion of patient’s heart are as follows: the absolute heart dullness is absent. What may be a reason of these changes?

    1. Retrocardial tumour

    2. Left-sided pleural effusion

    3. Right-sided pleural effusion

    4. * Acute pulmonary emphysema

    5. Normal data

  • A student is examining patient’s pulse. The normal frequency of pulse is equall to (per minute):

    1. 50-80

    2. 60-70

    3. 60-100

    4. 50-90

    5. * 60-90

  • A student is examining patient’s pulse. What parameter should he start from to assess pulse properties?

    1. Rrhythm

    2. Filling

    3. Frequency

    4. Tension

    5. * Similarity on both radial arteries

  • A student should assess patient’s facial expression. Which pathological condition is “Corvizar’s face” is typical fo?

    1. Kidney diseases

    2. Infectious diseases

    3. * Hheart failure

    4. Anaemia

    5. Peritonitis

  • A student should perform inspection of a patient. He found edema on patient's legs. Such a type of edema is typical for:

    1. * ongenital heart disease

    2. Rachitis

    3. Respiratory pathology

    4. Syphilis

    5. Brucellosis

  • Alternated pulse is typical for:

    1. Incompetence of aortal valve

    2. Stenosis of aortal valve

    3. Heart block

    4. Atrial flutter

    5. * Heavy myocardial affections

  • By inspection of a patient with heavy cardiac insufficiency it is possible to discover:

    1. Pale and puffy face

    2. * Cachexy or anasarca

    3. Edema on the legs without elevation of skin under the pressure

    4. Fingers as “drumsticks”

    5. Jaundice

  • By palpation patient’s pulse is dull. In what disease is dull pulse observed?

    1. Myocarditis

    2. Pericarditis

    3. Mitral defects

    4. * Hypertension

    5. Heart insufficiency

  • By palpation patient’s pulse is low and slow. “Pulsus parvus and tardus” is observed in:

    1. Mirtal incompletence

    2. Mitral stenosis

    3. Aortal incompletence

    4. * Atenosis of ostium of aorta

    5. Hypertension

  • By palpation patient’s pulse is quick and high. “Pulsus celler et altus” is observed in:

    1. mirtal incompletence

    2. mitral stenosis

    3. * aortal incompletence

    4. stenosis of aortal valve

    5. hypertension

  • Acrocyanosis in heart insufficiency occurs due to such patological mechanisms as follows:

    1. Reduction of quantity of restored hemoglobin

    2. Slowing of blood flow

    3. * Diminution of oxygen utilisation by tissues

    4. Reduction of hemoglobin oxygenation in lungs

    5. Decreasing of arterial blood pressure

  • Diastolic blood pressure level depends on:

    1. Blood viscosity

    2. * General perypheric resistance of vessels

    3. Volume of circulating blood

    4. Cardiac output

    5. Heart rate

  • Diastolic thrill at heart apex is the equivalent of:

    1. Respiratory movements

    2. Contraction of the left ventricle

    3. Contraction of the right ventricle

    4. Systolic murmur in aortal stenosis

    5. * Diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis

  • Dicrotic pulse is obcerved in:

    1. Incompetence of aortal valve

    2. Heart block

    3. Atrial flutter (electrical disfunction of atriums)

    4. Constrictive periocarditis

    5. * Decreased arterial tonus

  • Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for:

    1. hypetrophy of the right atrium

    2. hypetrophy of the left atrium

    3. hypetrophy of both atriums

    4. hypetrophy of left or right ventricle

    5. * hypetrophy of the left ventricle

  • Displacement of the left border of relative cardiac dullness is possible in:

    1. “Pulmonary” heart

    2. Dilatation of right cardiac borders

    3. In sickness of intraventricular septum

    4. * In dilatation and hypertrophy of the left ventricle

    5. In exaggerated dilatation of the left atrium

  • During examination of patient’s pulse a student revealed bradycardia. Rare pulse is observed in the case of:

    1. Increased body temperature

    2. Heart insufficiency

    3. * Complete atrioventricular block

    4. Myocarditis

    5. Thyrotoxicosis

  • During examination of patient’s pulse a student has revealed tachycardia. Tachycarida is observed in the case of:

    1. Narrowing of aortic aperture

    2. Hunger

    3. Brain tumour

    4. * Fever

    5. Jaundice

  • Dyspnea in heart insufficiency occurs due to the following cause:

    1. Decrease of blood pressure

    2. Slowing of blood flow

    3. * Irritation of the respiratory centre by carbonic acid

    4. Reduction of oxygen utilisation by tissues

    5. Increase of restored hemoglobin concentration

  • Epigastric pulsation which intensifies at inspiration is caused by:

    1. True liver pulsation

    2. Conducted liver pulsation

    3. Pulsation of abdominal part of aorta

    4. Pulsation of the left liver

    5. * Contractions of the right ventricle

  • Function of arterioli are as follows:

    1. Change with metabolites between blood and tissues

    2. * Maintainance of proper pressure in arterial bed

    3. Act as a shunts

    4. Accumulate blood in heart failure

    5. Gas exchange between blood and alveolar air

  • How apex beat will be changed in pericardial adhesions?

    1. Absent

    2. High

    3. * Negative

    4. Diffuse

    5. Resistant

  • Select a proper patient’s behaivior during attack of angina pectoris:

    1. The patient is “restless”

    2. The patient is restless, with locomotory and speech excitation

    3. The patient is sitting upright (orthopnea)

    4. The patient is staying upright

    5. * The patient is “stiffing in one position” – staying in the same position from the beginning of the attack till its finish

  • How the square of absolute cardiac dullness will change in large mediastinal tumour?

    1. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will not change

    2. * The square of absolute cardiac dullness will increases

    3. The square of absolute cardiac dullness will decreases

    4. The square of absolute cardiac dullness first decreases and then turns to be normal

    5. The square of absolute cardiac dullness first increases anf than markedly increases

  • If apex beat is determined in V intercostal space on 1,5 сm medially from the left midclavicular line, it is necessary to suspect…

    1. Left ventricular hyperthrophy

    2. * Normal location of apex beat

    3. Right-side pneumothorax

    4. Pleurisy with effusion on the right side

    5. Pulmonary emphysema

  • If apex beat is located in VI interspace – it may be due to:

    1. Mitral stenosis

    2. Tricuspid valvular stenosis

    3. Low position of diaphragm

    4. Pleuropericardial adhesions

    5. * Stenosis of aortal orifice

  • If the left border of relative cardiac dullness is located in the VІ interspace on the left midclavicular line – it may be due to:

    1. * Left ventricular dilatation

    2. Left side pneumothorax

    3. Low position of diaphragm

    4. Normal position of the border

    5. Sclerosis of the right lung

  • If the right border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the right sternal border – it means …

    1. compensatory emphysema of the right lung

    2. hyperthrophy of the right ventricle

    3. right ventricular dilatation

    4. left atrial dilatation

    5. * normal location of the border

  • If the upper border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the ІIІ interspace on the left parasternal line – it may be due to:

    1. Atelectasis of the right lung

    2. Hyperthrophyt of the left atrium

    3. Dilatation of the left ventricle

    4. Dilatation of aorta

    5. * Normal position

  • If the upper border of relative cardiac dullness is located at the ІІ interspace on the left parasternal line – it may be due to:

    1. Atelectasis of the right lung

    2. * Hyperthrophyt of the left atrium

    3. Dilatation of the left ventricle

    4. Dilatation of aorta

    5. Narrow pulmonary artery

  • If the width of cardiac vascular bundle is equal to 8 cm – it may be due to:

    1. * Dilatation of the left atrium

    2. Enlargement of the right atrium

    3. Normal size

    4. Mediastinal tumour

    5. Pleurisy with effusion

  • In the patient M. dull pulse was determined. What changes of blood pressure it is possible to reveal?

    1. Low systolic and diastolic

    2. * High systolic and diastolic

    3. High systolic and low diastolic

    4. Low systolic and high diastolic

    5. No changes

  • In which case displacement of the right border of relative cardiac dullness is possible?

    1. In dilatation of vascular bundle

    2. * In dilatation of the right atrium and right ventricle

    3. In dilatation of left atrium

    4. In dilatation of the left ventricle

    5. In hypertrophy of the left ventricle

  • Limits for diastolic blood pressure are:

    1. 50-80 mm of Hg

    2. 50-90 mm of Hg

    3. * 60-90 mm of Hg

    4. 60-95 mm of Hg

    5. 70-95 mm of Hg

  • Limits for normal systolic blood pressure are:

    1. 90-120 mm of Hg

    2. * 100-140 mm of Hg

    3. 100-160 mm of Hg

    4. 105-160 mm of Hg

    5. 110-160 mm of Hg

  • Negative apex beat is the sign of:

    1. Pericardiitis with effusion

    2. Hyperthrophy of the left ventricle

    3. Left ventricular dilatation

    4. * Adhesions between both pericardial layers and a chest wall

    5. Hyperthrophy of the right ventricle

  • Non-synchronous (different) pulse is typical for

    1. Incompetence of aortal valve

    2. Stenosis of aortal valve

    3. Incompetence of mitral valve

    4. Stenosis of mitral valve

    5. * Mitral valvular stenosis

  • Pathological decrease of the square of absolute heart dullness is typical for:

    1. Sclerosis of anterior parts of the lungs

    2. Exudative pericarditis

    3. * Lung emphysema

    4. Big tumour of posterior mediastinum

    5. Aortic valvular defects

  • Pathological enlargement of the square of absolute heart dullness is typical for:

    1. * Large tumour of posterior mediastinum

    2. Lung emphysema

    3. Left-sided pneumothorax

    4. Pneumopericarditis

    5. Attack of bronchial asthma

  • Positive venous pulse is observed in

    1. Incompetence of aortal valve

    2. Stenosis of aortal valve

    3. Incompetence of mitral valve

    4. Stenosis of mitral valve

    5. * Tricuspid valve incompetence

  • Pulse deficiency is typical for:

    1. incompetence of aortal valve

    2. Stenosis of aortal valve

    3. * Atrial fibrillation (electrical disfunction of atriums)

    4. Sharp decreasing of vascular tonus

    5. Severe myocardial lesion

  • Pulse filling characterises the following:

    1. Level of maximal arterial blood pressure

    2. Cardiac output

    3. * Amplitude of dilatation of arteries in systole

    4. Speed of myocardial contractions

    5. Width of vascular bundle

  • Pulse tension characterises the following:

    1. * Level of maximal arterial blood pressure

    2. Volume of circulating blood

    3. Cardiac output

    4. Speed of myocardial contractions

    5. Degree of dilatation of arteries

  • Quick pulse is typical for:

    1. Incompetence of aortal valve

    2. Stenosis of aortal valve

    3. All cases of bradicardia

    4. * All cases of tachycardia

    5. Stenosis of mitral valve

  • Reduced apical beat occurs in the following case:

    1. * Mitral stenosis

    2. Aortic stenosis

    3. Hypetrophy and dilatation of the left ventricle

    4. Aortic incompletence

    5. Hypertension

  • Systolic blood pressure level depends on:

    1. Blood viscosity

    2. General perypheric resistance of vessels

    3. Volume of circulating blood

    4. * Cardiac output

    5. Heart rate

  • The difference of blood pressure in norm should not exceed:

    1. * 5 mm of Hg

    2. 10 mm of Hg

    3. 22 mm of Hg

    4. 30 mm of Hg

    5. 40 mm of Hg

  • The necessary condirtion for rising of diastolic blood pressure is the following:

    1. * Elevation of general perypheric resistance of vessels

    2. Elevation of blood viscosity

    3. Increased volume of circulating blood

    4. Increased minute volume of blood

    5. Increased cardiac output

  • The sequence of determination of cardiac dullness borders by percussion is the following:

    1. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + heart transverse diameter

    2. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness

    3. * Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + heart transverse diameter + right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness

    4. Right, left and upper borders of relative dullness + right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness

    5. Right, left and upper borders of absolute dullness + right, left and upper borders of relative dullness

  • The square of normal apex beat is equal to

    1. * 1-2 cm square

    2. 3-4 cm square

    3. 5-6 cm square

    4. 0,2-0,5 cm square

    5. 0,5 -1 cm square

  • True liver pulsation is the sign of:

    1. Congestion in the larger circulation

    2. Cardial liver cirrhosis

    3. Pulmonary hypertension

    4. Aortal valve incompetence

    5. * Tricuspid valve incompetence

  • What are “vessels of resistance”?

    1. Arterial part of vascular bed

    2. Artery of medial caliber

    3. * arterioli

    4. capillary

    5. Corinary arteries

  • What characteristics of pain in the case of the attack of angina pectoris do you know?

    1. Burning, lasts by hours, days

    2. Dull, diffuse ache, irradiates to the left hand

    3. Pressing, burning, irradiates to the left hand, does not disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin

    4. * Retrosternal, burning paine, irradiates to the left hand, disappears after taking of validol or nitroglycerin

    5. Aching pain in one point of precordium, does not irradiate

  • What colour do pronounced cardiac edema have?

    1. Red

    2. Green

    3. White

    4. * Dark-blue

    5. Brown

  • What contents of restored hemoglobin is present in blood of patients with perypheric cyanosis? (parameters in gram/liter):

    1. 10-20

    2. 10-20

    3. 50-60

    4. * 70-80

    5. 90-100

  • What hemodynamic parameter is pulse filling equval to?

    1. Minute volume of blood

    2. The common resistance of periferic vessels

    3. Combination of minute blood volume and common resistance of periferic vessels

    4. * Cardiac output

    5. Viscosity of blood

  • What hemodynamic parameter pulse tension is equal to?

    1. Minute volume of blood

    2. * The common resistance of perypheric vessels

    3. Combination of minute blood volume and common resistance of periferic vessels

    4. Viscosity of blood

    5. Cardiac output

  • What is the cause of aortal heart configuration?

    1. Dilatation of the right ventricle

    2. Dilatation of the right atrium

    3. * Dilatation of the left ventricle

    4. Dilatation of the left atrium

    5. sickness of intraventricular septum

  • What is duration of pain in the case of attack of angina pectoris?

    1. For 1-2 minutes

    2. * For 5-10 minutes

    3. For 10-30 minutes

    4. From several seconds till 20-30 minutes

    5. For hours, days

  • What is the cause of mitral heart configuration?

    1. Dilatation of the right ventricle

    2. Dilatation of the right atrium

    3. Dilatation of the left ventricle

    4. * Dilatation of the left atrium

    5. sickness of intraventricular septum

  • What is necessary to find out before determination of the right border of relative dullness?

    1. Blood pressure and pulse of a patient

    2. Degree of severity of the disease

    3. * The heght of the diaphragm on the right side

    4. Resiliance of the chest

    5. The square and location of cardiac beat

  • What is normal location of the left border of absolute cardiac dullness?

    1. At the left midclavicular line

    2. * 2сm medially from the relative one

    3. 1,5-2 сm outside of left midclavicular line

    4. 3-4 сm outside of right border of absolute cardiac dullness

    5. 0,5-1 сm outside of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness

  • What is normal location of the left border of relative cardiac dullness?

    1. 0,5 сm outside from the right sternal border

    2. * 1-1,5 сm medially from the left midclavicular line

    3. At the left sternal border

    4. At medial line

    5. 1-1,5 см medially from medial line

  • What is normal location of the right border of absolute cardiac dullness?

    1. At the right sternal edge

    2. At medial line

    3. * At the left sternal edge

    4. 0,5 сm outside from the left sternal edge

    5. 1 сm outside from the left sternal edge

  • What is normal location of the right border of relative cardiac dullness?

    1. * 1-1,5 сm laterally from the right sternal border

    2. 1-1,5 сm inside from the left midclavicular line

    3. At the left sternal border

    4. At medial line

    5. 1-1,5 см medially from midline

  • What is normal location of the upper border of absolute cardiac dullness?

    1. 3rd interspace

    2. * Level of 4th rib

    3. 4th interspace on the left side

    4. Upper side of the 5 rib

    5. The lower edge of 5 rib

  • What is normal location of the upper border of relative cardiac dullness?

    1. The upper edge of 4th rib

    2. The upper edge of 3rd rib

    3. * The lower edge of 3rd rib

    4. In 3rd interspace

    5. The upper edge of 2nd rib

  • What is the width of heart vascular bundle equal to in norm:

    1. 1-2 cm

    2. 4-5 cm

    3. * 5-6 cm

    4. 11-13 cm

    5. 13-16 cm

  • What should be the strength of percutory stroke in determination of absolute cardiac dullness borders?

    1. Strong

    2. Moderate

    3. * Weak

    4. Loud

    5. Weak and moderate

  • What should be the strength of percutory stroke in determination of relative cardiac dullness borders?

    1. Strong

    2. * Moderate

    3. Weak

    4. Loud

    5. Weak and moderate

  • What the heart transverse diameter is equal to in norm:

    1. 8-9 cm

    2. 4-6 cm

    3. 12-15 cm

    4. * 11-13 cm

    5. 13-16 cm.

  • When will absolute cardiac dullness decrease?

    1. In hypertension

    2. * In pulmonary emphysema

    3. In rheumatіc fever

    4. In peptic ulcer

    5. . In chronic hepatitis

  • When will absolute cardiac dullness decrease?

    1. In rheumatіc fever

    2. * In low position of diaphragm

    3. In chronic nephritis

    4. In nettle rash

    5. In rheumatoid arthritis

  • Which complaints of patients with heart diseases are caused by increased blood pressure in pulmonary circulation?

    1. Dizziness, headache

    2. Pain in the heart area, palpitation

    3. Palpitation, edema on legs

    4. * Dyspnea, cough, asthma, blood spitting

    5. Nausea, vomiting

  • Which method is better for percussion of a heart?

    1. Immediate percussion

    2. * Mediate percussion finger by finger

    3. Mediate percussion through clothes

    4. Mediate percussion with iron pleximeter

    5. Combined percussion

  • Which square of cardiac dullness and in which way will change in inspiration?

    1. Will not change

    2. * Slightly increase absolute cardiac dullness

    3. Slightly decrease absolute cardiac dullness

    4. Slightly increase relative cardiac dullness

    5. Slightly decrease relative cardiac dullness

  • Which disease is Musse’s sign typical for?

    1. Hypertension

    2. Ischemic heart disease

    3. * Aortal valve incompetence

    4. Rheumatic heart disease

    5. Chronic pyelonephritis

  • Which disease is pulsation of carotic arteries typical for?

    1. Heart failure

    2. Septic endocarditis

    3. * Aortal valvular disease

    4. Tricuspid incompetence

    5. Hypertension

  • Which disease is pulsation of jugular veins typical for?

    1. Heart failure

    2. Septic endocarditis

    3. Mitral incompetence

    4. * Tricuspid incompetence

    5. Hypertension

  • How is pulsation of carotic arteries called?

    1. Negative pulse

    2. *Carotic shudder

    3. Positive pulse

    4. Venous pulse

    5. Arterial pulse

  • Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for:

    1. Ascites

    2. Splanchnoptosis

    3. Left sided hydrothorax

    4. All mentioned

    5. * No correct answer

  • Displacement of borders of relative heart dullness leftwards is typical for:

    1. Left ventricular failure

    2. Splanchnoptosis

    3. Left sided hydrothorax

    4. All mentioned

    5. * No correct answer

  • Which changes of vocal fremitus, bronchophony and percutory soung in I stage of croupous pneumonia?

    1. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be intensified

    2. Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull, bronchophony will be weakened.

    3. * Vocal fremitus will be weakened, percutory sound will be dull-to-thympany, bronchophony will be weakened

    4. Vocal fremitus will not be changed, percutory sound will be resonant, bronchophony will not be changed .

    5. Vocal fremitus will be intensified, percutory sound will be thympanic, bronchophony will be intensified.

  • Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 1st degree of respiratory failure?{

    1. >80 %, deviation

    2. * >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.

    3. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.

    4. < 60 %, deviation > 30 %.

    5. 55 %, deviation\= 25 %.

  • Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 2nd degree of respiratory failure?

    1. >80 %, deviation

    2. >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.

    3. * 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.

    4. < 60 %, deviation > 30 %.

    5. 55 %, deviation = 25 %.

  • Which index of FEV1 corresponds to the 3rd degree of respiratory failure?

    1. >80 %, deviation

    2. >80 %, deviation =20-30 %.

    3. . 60-80 % , deviation >30 %.

    4. * < 60 %, deviation > 30 %.

    5. 55 %, deviation = 25 %.

  • Which data of auscultation will be above affected part of the lung in I stage of lobar pneumonia?

    1. Bronchial breathing

    2. Amphoric breathing at the affected side

    3. Vesicular breathing

    4. Bronchovesicular breathing

    5. * Weakened vesicular breathing

  • Which properties of pulse will a patient have if he has systolic thrill at Botkin-Erb’s point and carotic shudder?

    1. Low and slow

    2. * Quick and high

    3. Irregular

    4. Of different feeling and tension

    5. Without changes



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